| Solution The answer is only  . This works, as for  , we have  and for  , by AM-GM,  . We'll now prove that there are no other solutions. Claim 01. For all
  , we have 
 ![\[ \frac{2}{xy} < \frac{f(x)}{x} + \frac{f(y)}{y} \le \frac{1}{x^2} + \frac{1}{y^2} \]](https://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/2/6/6/2664c52ec9dc3dfd2d30689a02a8b46346c5b866.png) Proof. Let us suppose that the unique  satisfying  is not  . We therefore conclude that  and  , i.e.  and  . However, this implies 
 ![\[ \frac{2}{xy} \ge \frac{f(x)}{x} + \frac{f(y)}{y} > \frac{1}{x^2} + \frac{1}{y^2} \ge \frac{2}{xy} \]](https://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/7/4/6/74636a7922d36884213c0f4a6784c27c870a44a5.png) which is a contradiction. Therefore, we must have  for all  ; and furthermore for all  , we must have 
 ![\[ \frac{f(x)}{x} + \frac{f(y)}{y} > \frac{2}{xy} \]](https://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/5/9/1/5912d815d01670c15dd927964c5adf70ce4edabe.png) as claimed. 
 Now, consider the function  such that  for all  . Therefore the condition above rewrites to 
 ![\[ g(a) + g(b) = a^2 + b^2 - a f \left( \frac{1}{a} \right) - b f \left( \frac{1}{b} \right) < (a - b)^2 \]](https://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/0/8/3/0834c12694e294045fb526508f2fa1a87b520715.png) f or any  . Let us write this as  . Claim 02.
  . Proof. We have
  for all  . Thus, 
 ![\[ 0 \le g(a) \le \lim_{b \to a} (a - b)^2 = 0 \implies g(a) = 0 \]](https://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/1/2/8/12878414bca5581ca12c33ba78c19cd7d227bf73.png) f
 or any  , as desired. 
 This forces  , as desired. |